I would like to know why my late answers are judged "off-topic"?
where everyone said "yes, India" and I believe I gave a correct answer, ie the unic possible, regarding the cost of those aliments? If you study a few of medieval history, you know that those uses are formed in times when sugar was really expensive. We had honey from before roman times.
"Only after the Crusades did it begin to rival honey as a sweetener in Europe. The Spanish began cultivating sugarcane in the West Indies in 1506 (and in Cuba in 1523). The Portuguese first cultivated sugarcane in Brazil in 1532. ...Regardless of which century table sugar production was discovered, it was a luxury in much of the world until the 18th century. ... In the 18th century, the demand for table sugar boomed in Europe, and by the 19th century it had become a human necessity... Beginning in the late 18th century, the production of sugar became increasingly mechanized....During the same century, Europeans began experimenting with sugar production from other crops... However, the beet-sugar industry really took off during the Napoleonic Wars".
Then, what is wrong in my answer?