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Isn't Why do drinks drunk from a glass instead of a bottle taste differently? too subjective to be answered? If there is any difference, the difference depends from too much factors (including the kind of drink), and probably from a personal judgement that can be not shared from somebody else.

Clearly for some drinks there is a difference; that is why the glass used for a wine is chosen basing on the wine you are going to drink. I am not sure that for every drink the reason of the difference, if there are any difference, is the same. The example made in the question is specific for Cola, but the question itself is about any generic drinks (as drinks doesn't mean soda, and drinks is what the title says). Should who answers reply about any kind of drink?

The other problem I see with the question is that is asking for detailed medical links, which none of the given answers so far reports. I don't think there are really medical links that explain the difference, but still, that is what the question is asking.

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My inclination is that it's ok. It is after all about serving, which is on topic. I think the two answers so far are both accurate and objective.

  • Agreed. I don't see personal judgement being used in either of the answers, or requested by the user. – hobodave Sep 1 '11 at 19:29
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    A few words can make all the difference. Remove the word why and change differently to better and it probably would have been closed. But definitely, it's fine the way it is right now. – Aaronut Sep 2 '11 at 0:18
  • I was not objecting the objectivity of the answers, but the objectivity of the question. The question seems a generic question about drinks, even if the example made is about Cola. – kiamlaluno Sep 13 '11 at 15:38

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